To pool or not to pool [Software]

posted by Helmut Homepage – Vienna, Austria, 2014-06-30 22:51 (3948 d 09:44 ago) – Posting: # 13177
Views: 27,093

Hi Zan,

❝ […] If there is a significant treatment*Group effect, is the overall (all subject) ratio (CI90%) still valid, or we have to adopt the ratio (CI90%) from separate groups?


If you pool groups you’ll end up with common estimates of between- and within-subject variances. If groups are different in their responses to the treatments you will not get pooled unbiased esti­mates. AFAIK, there is not corrective method. Theoretically – if you would know (!) the correlations between intra-/inter-subject variances, take the group sizes into account, :blahblah: – maybe some fancy weighting is possible. But: Estimates of these effects are not accessible in a simple 2×2 cross-over. Too many questions asked to poor little data.

❝ Regarding FDA's requirement below (equiva­lence be demonstrated in one of the groups), do we have a link to the source of the letter? I am hoping to keep it as a reference for study files.


Nope. I have seen similar wordings in confidential letters (and Detlew as well). Most phrases were identical to the letter. Copy/paste at the FDA?

❝ ❝ If the Treatment-by-Group term is not significant (p ≥0.1) this term can be dropped from the model, proceeding to Group Model II.


At least a similar quote in this post. I’m not in the office; will check tomorrow whether the signi­fi­cance level (0.05 different to FDA’s 0.1) is not a typo.

Do you have any good reasons to walk this dirty road at all? Multi-site study or the like? A split due to logistic reasons is very (very) common in BE. I have limited experience with the FDA, but in 30+ years I have neither seen a single BE study in Europe including group term(s) nor heard of any as­ses­sor asking for one. All trouble I experienced came from MENA-countries & Gulf states.

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