jag009
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NJ,
2012-06-11 17:01
(4329 d 12:20 ago)

Posting: # 8683
Views: 9,737
 

 Curiosity: Running BE studies with more than 2 arms [Design Issues]

Hi everyone,

I have a question. If there is a FDA a draft BE guidance for a product specifing the type of 2 way crossover studies that need to be conducted:
  1. 2-way crossover (Test vs Reference) fasting
  2. 2-way crossover (Test vs Reference) fed
What if we end up running a 4-way crossover involving 3 test formulations vs 1 Reference for each study? Everything will be the same except for 2 extra arms. The reason we are doing this is because we want to bypass the pilot study.

Would that be doable? The only issue I can see (beside the cost) is the ethical issue because we will (obviously) draw more blood samples per subject, and may have a larger sample size due to potential dropouts since the length of the study is doubled.

I believe FDA allows the use of an alternative approach if the approach satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.

Do you think the agency will have an issue with the approach?

Thanks

John
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2012-06-11 18:23
(4329 d 10:59 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 8684
Views: 8,847
 

 Common variance!

Hi John!

❝ I have a question. If there is a FDA a draft BE guidance for a product specifing the type of 2 way crossover studies that need to be conducted:


❝ 1. 2-way crossover (Test vs Reference) fasting

❝ 2. 2-way crossover (Test vs Reference) fed


Sure, many. One example is our baby methylphenidate XR (+sprinkled, BTW).

❝ What if we end up running a 4-way crossover involving 3 test formulations vs 1 Reference for each study? Everything will be the same except for 2 extra arms. The reason we are doing this is because we want to bypass the pilot study.


❝ Would that be doable?


In principle yes.

❝ The only issue I can see (beside the cost) is the ethical issue because we will (obviously) draw more blood samples per subject, and may have a larger sample size due to potential dropouts since the length of the study is doubled.


Right. But there’s another problem: In this type of higher-order XOver you obtain a common (pooled) variance from treatment variances. What if one of the formulations not only shows a PE far away from 100% (which would lead to dropping it from development), but performs ‘bad’ in terms of the CV? Especially if MR formulations are concerned, the differences sometimes are large. This formulation will inflate your CIs and require a larger sample size compared to simple XOvers. We had a similar debate in the EU where EMA in their drafted GL wanted to see a four-way XOver T and R (fed/fasting). In the final GL such a design is not required.

❝ I believe FDA allows the use of an alternative approach if the approach satisfies the requirements of the applicable statutes and regulations.


Sure.

❝ Do you think the agency will have an issue with the approach?


No idea. :smoke: *


  • Edit: Thinking it over I would expect that the FDA will not like this approach. What if it’s the other way ’round? Three tests; T1 and T2 perform bad in terms of their PEs whilst T3 is fine. Now let’s assume that s²WT1=s²WT2=s²WR WT3. The pooled s²W will be ‘dampened’ by the (later dropped) formulations T1 and T2. In other words you would never be able to demonstrate BE of T1 in a 2-way XOver of the same size. Though theses variances are not accessible in a nonreplicate design I think that the FDA wouldn’t like the idea of approving a product with a potential ‘variance-brake’ in the pivotal study.

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jag009
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NJ,
2012-06-11 19:25
(4329 d 09:56 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8685
Views: 8,741
 

 Common variance!

Hi Helmut,

❝ Right. But there’s another problem: In this type of higher-order XOver you obtain a common (pooled) variance from treatment variances. What if one of the formulations not only shows a PE far away from 100% (which would lead to dropping it from development), but performs ‘bad’ in terms of the CV? Especially if MR formulations are concerned, the differences sometimes are large. This formulation will inflate your CIs and require a larger sample size compared to simple XOvers. We had a similar debate in the EU where EMA in their drafted GL wanted to see a four-way XOver T and R (fed/fasting). In the final GL such a design is not required.


Agreed. I forgot to say that a larger sample size will also serve to compensate for the widening of the CIs due to potential increase in variations due to formulation performance differences. Now how much of an increase in sample size is the problem... Like you said we don't know how bad 1 or 2 out of the 3 test formulations will perform.
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2012-06-11 19:35
(4329 d 09:46 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 8686
Views: 8,767
 

 Common variance!

Hi John!

❝ Agreed. I forgot to say that a larger sample size will also serve to compensate for the widening of the CIs due to potential increase in variations due to formulation performance differences. Now how much of an increase in sample size is the problem... Like you said we don't know how bad 1 or 2 out of the 3 test formulations will perform.


:-D Everybody wants to kill two birds with one stone. What you essentially would need is a full adaptive design (adjusting for observed PEs and CVs). This is one of our member’s specialty. Acceptance? No idea.


P.S.: Avoid multiple blanks (a reminiscence of the age of typewriters) in your posts. They will be cut down on a single blank – so the aimed effect does not work anyway.

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jag009
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NJ,
2012-06-11 22:03
(4329 d 07:18 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8687
Views: 8,703
 

 Common variance!

Hi Helmut

:-D Everybody wants to kill two birds with one stone. What you essentially would need is a full adaptive design (adjusting for observed PEs and CVs). This is one of our member’s specialty. Acceptance? No idea.


I thought about adaptive design as well but then timing would become an issue since bioanalytical would be involved during the process? The stupid thing is we want to test all and hit the spot with one (hopefully). It is a resource (outsourcing) vs time issue.

I am the planner designer executioner (or whatever, not the one with the sickle), higher up gives the call (timeframe wise) :-|
ElMaestro
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Denmark,
2012-06-11 22:34
(4329 d 06:47 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 8688
Views: 8,868
 

 Common variance!

Hi Jag009,

❝ I thought about adaptive design as well but then timing would become an issue since bioanalytical would be involved during the process? The stupid thing is we want to test all and hit the spot with one (hopefully). It is a resource (outsourcing) vs time issue.


And on a side note I have to say I think this is becoming almost a syndrome now in the pharma industry. Everything is being LEAN'ed into dysfunctionality where management dictates a "yes we can"-attitude which is basically founded in hot air. Another syndrome is the "fight for it"-order that top management issues when studies have gone so pearshaped that noone (except management) believes it can be accepted by the regulatory authority.
Now I've said it. It feels good. I will now take my medicine. Sorry. Back into my cage.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2012-06-12 03:03
(4329 d 02:18 ago)

@ ElMaestro
Posting: # 8689
Views: 8,710
 

 Common variance!

Hi ElMaestro!

❝ Everything is being LEAN'ed into dysfunctionality where management dictates a "yes we can"-attitude which is basically founded in hot air. Another syndrome is the "fight for it"-order that top management issues when studies have gone so pearshaped that noone (except management) believes it can be accepted by the regulatory authority.


Well said. :angry:

❝ Now I've said it. It feels good. I will now take my medicine. Sorry. Back into my cage.


Are you still “within pharmacological reach”? If ev’rything fails consider a hint of Schützomycin. Happy dreams!

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ElMaestro
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Denmark,
2012-06-12 15:22
(4328 d 13:59 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8708
Views: 8,712
 

 Common variance!

Hi HS,

❝ Are you still “within pharmacological reach”? If ev’rything fails consider a hint of Schützomycin. Happy dreams!


Thank you, good idea, I'll take a ton of them tablets. And perhaps I need a straitjacket also.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
jag009
★★★

NJ,
2012-06-12 21:56
(4328 d 07:25 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8719
Views: 8,617
 

 Common variance!

Hi Helmut,

❝ Thinking it over I would expect that the FDA will not like this approach. What if it’s the other way ’round? Three tests; T1 and T2 perform bad in terms of their PEs whilst T3 is fine. Now let’s assume that s²WT1=s²WT2=s²WR WT3. The pooled s²W will be ‘dampened’ by the (later dropped) formulations T1 and T2. In other words you would never be able to demonstrate BE of T1 in a 2-way XOver of the same size. Though theses variances are not accessible in a nonreplicate design I think that the FDA wouldn’t like the idea of approving a product with a potential ‘variance-brake’ in the pivotal study.


Totally agree. Could I hypothetically strip the two treatments (successful test formulation and the reference) and re-run stats in a two-way crossover fashion to re-evaulate the data? Would that stand a chance with regulatory? Just a thought...

Thanks

John
jag009
★★★

NJ,
2012-06-12 22:00
(4328 d 07:21 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 8720
Views: 8,652
 

 What if I run a study with 2 references?

Just out of curiosity, no I am not :smoke: happy substances..

Would any reg agency accept a bioequivalence study involving 1 Test and 2 reference (meaning 2 difference lot numbers) and claim bioequivalence when the test shows BE to only one lot of reference?
Someone from the my lab asked this question. I really thought he was :party:

John
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2012-06-12 22:39
(4328 d 06:42 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 8721
Views: 8,657
 

 Common variance!

Hi John!

❝ Could I hypothetically strip the two treatments (successful test formulation and the reference) and re-run stats in a two-way crossover fashion to re-evaulate the data?

(my emphasis)

See this goody (slides 60–67). The title Don’t try this at home! tells it all. You are not the first one having such an idea (see also here).

❝ Would that stand a chance with regulatory?


Close to nil – unless you run sufficiently large simulations demonstrating that the patient’s risk is preserved. Not a trivial job.

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d_labes
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Berlin, Germany,
2012-06-13 11:11
(4327 d 18:10 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8724
Views: 8,568
 

 Two References

Hi Helmut!

❝ Close to nil ...


What about
"In studies with more than two treatment arms (e.g. a three period study including two references, one from EU and another from USA, or a four period study including test and reference in fed and fasted states), the analysis for each comparison should be conducted excluding the data from the treatments that are not relevant for the comparison in question."
CPMP/QWP/EWP/1401/98 Rev. 1, page 14

May this eventually imply that in case of BE to the EU Reference but not to the USA Reference the study would pass?
IMHO this is one of the 'rationales' behind that crippled evaluation method that EU regulators are not interested in the BE result to the USA Reference.

Regards,

Detlew
jag009
★★★

NJ,
2012-09-11 00:48
(4238 d 04:34 ago)

@ d_labes
Posting: # 9169
Views: 8,110
 

 Two References

Hi d_labes and Helmut,

This really bugs me (from EMEA guidance)...

"In studies with more than two treatment arms (e.g. a three period study including two references, one from EU and another from USA, or a four period study including test and reference in fed and fasted states), the analysis for each comparison should be conducted excluding the data from the treatments that are not relevant for the comparison in question."

I have a dataset containing 4 treatments (from a 4-way 4-treatmens 4-sequence crossover study) and each treatment has different # of subjects (ie: A(T-Fast)=24, B(Ref Fast)=19, C(T-Fed)=22, D(Ref Fed)=24). I tried doing the stats as per the above statment (A vs D, C vs D, C vs A, D vs B) by removing the treatments that are not of interest but SAS gave me an error message for my SAS code

estimat1 = Estimate "A - D" Treatment 1 0 0 -1

"WARNING: More coefficients than levels specified for effect TREATMENT. Some coefficients will be ignored. NOTE: A vs D is not estimable." I got the same error message for each comparison.

Any reason why?

Thanks
John
d_labes
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Berlin, Germany,
2012-09-11 10:20
(4237 d 19:01 ago)

@ jag009
Posting: # 9174
Views: 7,934
 

 Two treatments only

Hi John,

❝ This really bugs me (from EMEA guidance)...


❝ "In studies with more than two treatment arms (e.g. a three period study including two references, one from EU and another from USA, or a four period study including test and reference in fed and fasted states), the analysis for each comparison should be conducted excluding the data from the treatments that are not relevant for the comparison in question."


Me too :angry:

❝ I have a dataset containing 4 treatments (from a 4-way 4-treatmens 4-sequence crossover study) and each treatment has different # of subjects (ie: A(T-Fast)=24, B(Ref Fast)=19, C(T-Fed)=22, D(Ref Fed)=24). I tried doing the stats as per the above statment (A vs D, C vs D, C vs A, D vs B) by removing the treatments that are not of interest but SAS gave me an error message for my SAS code

estimat1 = Estimate "A - D" Treatment 1 0 0 -1

❝ "WARNING: More coefficients than levels specified for effect TREATMENT. Some coefficients will be ignored. NOTE: A vs D is not estimable." I got the same error message for each comparison.


❝ Any reason why?


Have a look at the "Class levels" output of your Proc GLM evaluation.
Especially the levels of treatment :cool:.

You will notice that you have only 2 treatments in your EMA crippled evaluation (A and D in the data if the comparison A vs. D is concerned).
Thus you have to formulate:
Estimate "A - D" Treatment 1 -1
to get the 90% CIs of of A-D.

Regards,

Detlew
jag009
★★★

NJ,
2012-06-13 18:08
(4327 d 11:13 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 8728
Views: 8,593
 

 Common variance!

Hi Helmut,

❝ ❝ Could I hypothetically strip the two treatments (successful test formulation and the reference) and re-run stats in a two-way crossover fashion to re-evaulate the data?

❝ (my emphasis)


❝ See this goody (slides 60–67). The title Don’t try this at home! tells it all. You are not the first one having such an idea (see also here).


Don't fly over the atlantic and hit me with a hammer on this ... I am just hypothesizing

If I do strip the good test and reference arms from such a 4-way crossover study (3 T vs R), assign the 2 treatments to a 2-treatment randomization scheme according to how the two were arranged in the original 4-treatment randomization such as,

A, B, C, D --> assign as A D
B, C, D, A --> assign as D A
C, D, A, B --> assign as D A
B, A, C, D --> assign as A D

I then re-run the stats to show that the test is bioequivalent to the reference. The sample size doesn't change.

Why would the above be "Don't try this at home"?

I ran a simulation last night based the data from a successful 2-way crossover study by:
  1. Adding 2 simulated test arms to artificially inflate and deflate the common variance (the pooled intra CV)
  2. Ran 90% CI to get the results for the "Target" arms.
I reverse the simulation (as in stripping the Target and reference arm) and re-evaulate the study as a 2-way study. The results I got was exactly the same as the original data (the 90% CIs matched).

?

Thanks

John
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