GM
★    

India,
2019-07-20 09:36
(2091 d 15:20 ago)

Posting: # 20410
Views: 9,295
 

 Possible reasons for group effect [Design Issues]

Hello Bebac Friends,

Hope all are doing well...!!!

When I am reading about fixed effects used in general crossover studies and possible reasons for significant results of these fixed effects, I didn't found any relevant reasons for the significant group effect.

Anybody know about the possible reasons for significant group effect...?

Thanks in advance.

Best Regards,
GM
Helmut
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2019-07-20 16:02
(2091 d 08:54 ago)

@ GM
Posting: # 20413
Views: 8,374
 

 Group “effect”

Hi GM,

❝ […] fixed effects used in general crossover studies and possible reasons for significant results of these fixed effects, I didn't found any relevant reasons for the significant group effect.


The p-value itself tells you nothing. If you set your limit to 0.05, that means that you consider a p-value <0.05 denoting an effect which occurred not by pure chance. The reason for an effect is beyond the reach of statistics.
Think about the subject-term. It is always highly significant.* Recode the common effects to something neutral (say, response → Y, sequence → a, subject → b, period → c, treatment → d ) and provide the data to a statistician without telling the background to evaluate the linear model $$\ln(Y) \sim a+b+c+d$$ or – if you insist on the stupid over-specified one given in the guidelines – $$\ln(Y) \sim a+b(a)+c+d$$ Hey, \(p(b)\) or \(p(b(a)) = 0.00000314\). Now ask for a “reason”.
Answer: :ponder:

Science is wonderfully equipped to answer the question “How?”
but it gets terribly confused when you ask the question “Why?”
   Erwin Chargaff

Ask a physicist what gravity is. No, not how it is described in physics. You will be surprised.

❝ Anybody know about the possible reasons for significant group effect...?


Chance? IMHO, testing for it is futile (see there).


  • Unless you perform the study in cloned subjects, which would violate an assumption of the model, namely independence. ;-) If I would ever see a study with a p-value >0.05 for the subject effect it would ring my alarm bells.

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ElMaestro
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Denmark,
2019-07-20 21:20
(2091 d 03:37 ago)

@ GM
Posting: # 20414
Views: 8,160
 

 Possible reasons for group effect

Hello GM,

there are always potential jokers in play:

1. Check if the volunteers within groups have something in common.
Were they recruited in a different manner, in spite of all subjects fulfilling the enrollment criteria? I have seen cases of that recently.
Eyeball if body weight, gender mix, age, or some other factor may differ a bit between groups. If it does then there is a likely -and I am not saying definite- reason, but it is not one associated with a ton of literature.

2. The use of groups is often a capacity issue, relating to the number of beds at the CRO.
Groups are then separated in time, for example by days or weeks, sometimes even months. And time has funky effects, not only on individuals but also on groups of individuals.
Heat wave in Mumbai? Some subjects will be borderline dehydrated when showing up, and they will not feel much like walking around.
Pollen season just set in in Winchester VA? Some subjects will be coughing and wheezing when showing up, even if they don't have a medical history of allergies.
I saw a TV add about vegan diets yesterday. Therefore, brainwashed as I am, the next two weeks I will be buying all the bran and celery soup available in the supermarket and I will be going full tilt into that thing until I realise it is just killing my quality of life, and all the while I will have a changing phenotype of sorts. Until I start living normally again. I find some comfort in knowing that there are others who saw the same TV add and who are suffering the same phenomenon (and the owner of the company selling celery is likely going on monthly vacations to Tonga or some such remote and exotic place, due to victims of his affairs like me, but this is another story).

And so forth.

Finally, bear in mind that phase III studies across centers often have significant center effects. I think this phenomenon is much comparable to the group effect, honestly. Such phase III trials get approved.

The group effect questions from regulators are often not too difficult to handle. They do not become a cause for rejection in my experience.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
GM
★    

India,
2019-07-23 08:23
(2088 d 16:34 ago)

@ ElMaestro
Posting: # 20433
Views: 7,922
 

 Possible reasons for group effect

Hi Helmut and ElMaestro,

Thanks for reply. It helps me a lot.

I have seen one FDA BE review (see link) regarding group effect. Please see page 6 (Reviewer’s Comments) and page 52 (control document).

Here agency is asking for the BE of any one of the group, if group-by-treatment interaction is significant (p<0.05). Is it possible in studies conducted on HVD?

Please provide your thoughts on the same.

Best Regards,
GM
Helmut
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2019-07-23 12:32
(2088 d 12:24 ago)

@ GM
Posting: # 20435
Views: 7,972
 

 “Group-by-Treatment Interaction”

Hi GM,

❝ I have seen one FDA BE review […].


Yep, the 1999 (!) infamous one. Groups separated by two weeks. See the FDA’ applicable guidance (2001), Section VII.A.

❝ Here agency is asking for the BE of any one of the group, if group-by-treatment interaction is significant (p<0.05).


0.1 not 0.05. BTW, did you bother reading the presentation I linked in my OP?

❝ Is it possible in studies conducted on HVD?


Do you have a replicate design in mind? For ABE, no problem. For the EMA’s ABEL, doable. For the FDA’s RSABE, difficult. Ask three statisticians only to get get four options. Possible that the FDA insists on the fifth nobody has thought about. Difficult terrain.

❝ Please provide your thoughts on the same.


Let’s assume that you plan the study in such a way that groups are not expected to differ (see ElMaestro’s post).
  • FDA, Gulf Cooperation Council, Russian Federation, Eurasian Economic Union
    Give a justification (in the protocol!) that all criteria will be met and go full throttle with the pooled analysis.
    FDA: If in doubt, start a controlled correspondence.
    The others: There are no scientific advices, only private dinners. Consider ‘Model II’.
  • EMA
    Thousand of studies accepted in multiple groups without problems (two exceptions in my presentation). If you prefer braces with suspenders, state ‘Model II’ in the protocol. Loss in power compared to the pooled analysis is negligible.
Do not (!) apply the framework suggested by the FDA in the dark ages!
  • If there is no true group-by-treatment interaction, in 10% of cases you will detect one by pure chance (false positive). No pooling, analysis of separate groups, power to show BE – even in the largest one – low.
  • Any pre-test can inflate the Type I Error.

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BEQool
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2024-10-22 14:39
(170 d 10:17 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24243
Views: 3,818
 

 “Group-by-Treatment Interaction”

Hello

❝ ❝ Here agency is asking for the BE of any one of the group, if group-by-treatment interaction is significant (p<0.05).

❝ 0.1 not 0.05. BTW, did you bother reading the presentation I linked in my OP?


Why would the alpha for G*T interaction be 0.1 and not 0.05 like almost always?

Regards
BEQool
Helmut
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2024-10-22 14:47
(170 d 10:10 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24244
Views: 3,812
 

 “Group-by-Treatment Interaction”

Hi BEQool,

❝ ❝ ❝ Here agency is asking for the BE of any one of the group, if group-by-treatment interaction is significant (p<0.05).

❝ ❝ 0.1 not 0.05. BTW, did you bother reading the presentation I linked in my OP?


❝ Why would the alpha for G*T interaction be 0.1 and not 0.05 like almost always?


The original post is five years old… At the time being 0.05 indeed. The 0.1 was used by the FDA in analogy of Grizzle’s dreadful test1 for unequal carryover.

“… a preliminary test should be made at some high level of significance, say α = .10 or α = .15”

It is evident that increasing the level of any test to offset inadequate power leads to an increased false positive rate.
BTW, the FDA’s 2022 guidance2 does not specify a particular level but has Grizzle in the references. Even worse, Alosh3 as well:

“To improve the power when testing for an interaction, some suggest using a test size of 0.10 or in extreme cases 0.20, particularly when there is reason to suspect a specific interaction exists. While an increase in the test size makes it easier to detect an interaction, this would be at the expense of an increase in the chance of false positive findings. The choice of the test size can depend on the context and it would be inappropriate to say a specific test size is applicable in all scenarios.”

Make your pick.


  1. Grizzle JE. The Two-Period Change-Over Design and Its Use in Clinical Trials. Biometrics. 1965; 21(2): 467–80. doi:10.2307/2528104.
  2. FDA (CDER). Statistical Approaches to Establishing Bioequivalence. Guidance for Industry. Draft. Silver Spring, MD. December 2022. Download.
  3. Alosh M, Fritsch K, Huque M, Mahjoob K, Pennello G, Rothmann M, Russek-Cohen E, Smith F, Wilson S, Yue L. Statistical Con­si­de­ra­tions on Subgroup Analysis in Clinical Trials. Stat Biopharm Res. 2015; 7(4): 286–304. doi:10.1080/19466315.2015.1077726.

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mittyri
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Russia,
2024-10-22 18:03
(170 d 06:53 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24245
Views: 3,752
 

 OT: A choice between

Dear Colleagues!

cannot stop myself, sorry

[image]

Kind regards,
Mittyri
BEQool
★    

2024-10-23 13:02
(169 d 11:54 ago)

@ mittyri
Posting: # 24246
Views: 3,710
 

 OT: A choice between

Dear Helmut,

❝ The original post is five years old… At the time being 0.05 indeed. The 0.1 was used by the FDA in analogy of Grizzle’s dreadful test1 for unequal carryover.“

❝ [...]Make your pick.

Thanks for a thorough answer.
Regarding the choice of alpha level of 0.05 or 0.1 - every sponsor would probbaly choose 0.05 in order to decrease the chance of detecting an interaction?


Dear Mittyri,
good one :ok: (with alpha-value instead of p-value in the picture)
As written above, every sponsor would probably take the blue one :-D


Regards
BEQool
Helmut
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2024-10-23 13:58
(169 d 10:59 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24247
Views: 3,666
 

 OT: A choice between

Hi BEQool,

❝ Regarding the choice of alpha level of 0.05 or 0.1 - every sponsor would probbaly choose 0.05 in order to decrease the chance of detecting an interaction?

Sure – though I still hold that the entire idea of such a test is crap.

Let’s see again what ICH M13A says:

The statistical model should take into account the multi-group nature of the BE study, e.g., by using a model including terms for group, sequence, sequence × group, subject within sequence × group, period within group and formulation. The group × treatment interaction term should not be included in the model. However, applicants should evaluate potential for heterogeneity of treatment effect across groups and discuss its potential impact on the study data, e.g., by investigation of group × treatment interaction in a supportive analysis and calculation of descriptive statistics by group.

What should we point out in the discussion? That a significant group × treatment interaction is to be expected at the level of test? What might be meant by »calculation of descriptive statistics by group«? Geometric means of PK metrics (irrespective of treatment), separately for the treatments, or PEs by model 3 (i.e., the conventional one with any group terms)? What would an assessor conclude from any of those? Even if they would calculate the CI of groups separately, likely they would overlap. So what?

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BEQool
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2024-10-23 15:17
(169 d 09:39 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24248
Views: 3,633
 

 OT: A choice between

Hello Helmut,

of course I unfortunately dont know the answers to your questions but

❝ [...] or PEs by model 3 (i.e., the conventional one with any group terms)? What would an assessor conclude from any of those? Even if they would calculate the CI of groups separately, likely they would overlap. So what?


Isnt it so that if we detect Group*Treatment interaction, the CIs of groups seperately very likely wouldnt overlap? That is why we detect an interaction?

BEQool
Helmut
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2024-10-23 15:22
(169 d 09:34 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24249
Views: 3,655
 

 OT: A choice between

Hi BEQool,

❝ Isnt it so that if we detect Group*Treatment interaction, the CIs of groups seperately very likely wouldnt overlap? That is why we detect an interaction?


Not necessarily. See the example at the end of this post.

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Helmut
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2024-11-03 12:36
(158 d 11:20 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24255
Views: 3,006
 

 Groups: Overlapping CIs

Hi BEQool,

❝ Isnt it so that if we detect Group*Treatment interaction, the CIs of groups seperately very likely wouldnt overlap? That is why we detect an interaction?


The example I referred to in my previous post was not ideal because \(\small{p(\text{G}\times \text{T})=0.080992}\) and you were asking for a case where the Group-by-Treatment interaction is significant.

Below simulated data for an extreme case – Wanjie would love – with \(\small{\mu_1=0.80}\) and \(\small{\mu_2=1.25}\).

 subject group sequence treatment period      Y
       1     1       TR         T      1 2.6786
       1     1       TR         R      2 2.6848
       2     1       TR         T      1 2.0931
       2     1       TR         R      2 3.5289
       3     1       TR         T      1 2.0567
       3     1       TR         R      2 3.4351
       4     1       TR         T      1 2.2692
       4     1       TR         R      2 2.7533
       5     1       TR         T      1 3.6712
       5     1       TR         R      2 2.3086
       6     1       TR         T      1 2.6790
       6     1       TR         R      2 3.3427
       7     1       RT         R      1 3.9382
       7     1       RT         T      2 2.9792
       8     1       RT         R      1 3.0783
       8     1       RT         T      2 3.8813
       9     1       RT         R      1 2.2989
       9     1       RT         T      2 2.8853
      10     1       RT         R      1 3.5939
      10     1       RT         T      2 2.0244
      11     1       RT         R      1 2.7416
      11     1       RT         T      2 1.7836
      12     1       RT         R      1 2.8352
      12     1       RT         T      2 1.7375
      13     2       TR         T      1 3.8682
      13     2       TR         R      2 3.8447
      14     2       TR         T      1 3.1741
      14     2       TR         R      2 3.4061
      15     2       TR         T      1 3.5032
      15     2       TR         R      2 3.4281
      16     2       TR         T      1 4.0822
      16     2       TR         R      2 2.1213
      17     2       TR         T      1 4.3318
      17     2       TR         R      2 2.1424
      18     2       TR         T      1 3.0408
      18     2       TR         R      2 3.3706
      19     2       RT         R      1 2.8236
      19     2       RT         T      2 2.8858
      20     2       RT         R      1 2.2274
      20     2       RT         T      2 3.5447
      21     2       RT         R      1 2.8156
      21     2       RT         T      2 2.7663
      22     2       RT         R      1 2.4314
      22     2       RT         T      2 1.8948
      23     2       RT         R      1 2.1932
      23     2       RT         T      2 2.7153
      24     2       RT         R      1 2.6504
      24     2       RT         T      2 2.8821

Model I  (pooled data)
  p(G×T) = 0.024984
Model II (pooled data)
  PE     =  97.64%
  90% CI =  85.53 – 111.47%
  CVw    =  27.13%
Model III (group 1)
  PE     =  82.54%
  90% CI =  68.23 –  99.86%
  CVw    =  26.16%
Model III (group 2)
  PE     = 115.50%
  90% CI =  98.04 – 136.08%
  CVw    =  22.43%


As to be expected, the Group-by-Treatment interaction is significant.
The study passes with flying colors by Model II. Also expected because the study was powered for \(\small{\mu_2=1/\mu_1=1}\).
Both groups assessed by Model III fail. Of course, they do because we simulated them at the limits of the BE range. However, their confidence intervals do overlap.

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BEQool
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2024-11-05 10:14
(156 d 13:42 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24259
Views: 2,878
 

 Groups: Overlapping CIs

Hello Helmut,

thank you for the illustration with specific example.

Model I  (pooled data)

  p(G×T) = 0.024984

Model II (pooled data)

  PE     =  97.64%

  90% CI =  85.53 – 111.47%

  CVw    =  27.13%

Model III (group 1)

  PE     =  82.54%

  90% CI =  68.23 –  99.86%

  CVw    =  26.16%

Model III (group 2)

  PE     = 115.50%

  90% CI =  98.04 – 136.08%

  CVw    =  22.43%

❝ As to be expected, the Group-by-Treatment interaction is significant.

❝ The study passes with flying colors by Model II. Also expected because the study was powered for \(\small{\mu_2=1/\mu_1=1}\).

❝ Both groups assessed by Model III fail. Of course, they do because we simulated them at the limits of the BE range. However, their confidence intervals do overlap.

Yes they overlap slightly (upper limit of group 1= 99.86% vs. lower limit of group 2= 98.04%).
Like you said in the other post ("Even if an assessor would calculate the confidence interval of groups separately, likely they would overlap due to the limited sample sizes."), they most likely overlap because of the relatively small sample size (n=12 per group). Probably if we had larger total sample size (in this example it would maybe be reasonable as CVw is around 27%, e.g. total sample size of 32 or 36 subjects) and thus larger sample size per group then groups' 90% CI most likely wouldnt overlap.
I am just wondering if variabilty is moderate and the sample size is large enough (--> high power) then in most cases groups' 90% CI probably wouldnt overlap in case of significant G*T interaction?

BEQool
Helmut
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2024-11-05 11:12
(156 d 12:44 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24260
Views: 2,860
 

 Groups: Overlapping CIs

Hi BEQool,

❝ Like you said in the other post ("Even if an assessor would calculate the confidence interval of groups separately, likely they would overlap due to the limited sample sizes."), they most likely overlap because of the relatively small sample size (n=12 per group). Probably if we had larger total sample size (in this example it would maybe be reasonable as CVw is around 27%, e.g. total sample size of 32 or 36 subjects) and thus larger sample size per group then groups' 90% CI most likely wouldnt overlap.

❝ I am just wondering if variabilty is moderate and the sample size is large enough (--> high power) then in most cases groups' 90% CI probably wouldnt overlap in case of significant G*T interaction?


You are right:

Simulated data
  n = 36
  group 1: n = 18, mue = 0.80
  group 2: n = 18, mue = 1.25
Model I  (pooled data)
  p(G×T) = 0.014978
Model II (pooled data)
  PE     = 112.86%
  90% CI = 101.14 – 125.93%
  CVw    =  28.01%
Model III (group 1)
  PE     =  96.75%
  90% CI =  81.55 – 114.79%
  CVw    =  30.02%
Model III (group 2)
  PE     = 131.64%
  90% CI = 116.71 – 148.49%
  CVw    =  20.91%

However, how realistic is \(\small{\mu_1=0.80,\,\mu_2=1/\mu_1}\)?

Let’s try a less extreme case with \(\small{\mu_1=0.825,\,\mu_2=1/\mu_1}\):

Simulated data
  n = 32
  group 1: n = 16, mue = 0.825
  group 2: n = 16, mue = 1.2121
Model I  (pooled data)
  p(G×T) = 0.040949
Model II (pooled data)
  PE     = 103.96%
  90% CI =  92.58 – 116.73%
  CVw    =  27.80%
Model III (group 1)
  PE     =  90.57%
  90% CI =  75.27 – 108.96%
  CVw    =  30.37%
Model III (group 2)
  PE     = 119.33%
  90% CI = 104.67 – 136.03%
  CVw    =  21.28%

\(\small{p(\text{G}\times\text{T})}\) is significant and CIs of groups overlap. :-D

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BEQool
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2024-11-06 08:44
(155 d 15:12 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24262
Views: 2,769
 

 Groups: Overlapping CIs

Hello Helmut

❝ Let’s try a less extreme case with \(\small{\mu_1=0.825,\,\mu_2=1/\mu_1}\):

Simulated data

  n = 32

  group 1: n = 16, mue = 0.825

  group 2: n = 16, mue = 1.2121

Model I  (pooled data)

  p(G×T) = 0.040949

Model II (pooled data)

  PE     = 103.96%

  90% CI =  92.58 – 116.73%

  CVw    =  27.80%

Model III (group 1)

  PE     =  90.57%

  90% CI =  75.27 – 108.96%

  CVw    =  30.37%

Model III (group 2)

  PE     = 119.33%

  90% CI = 104.67 – 136.03%

  CVw    =  21.28%

❝ \(\small{p(\text{G}\times\text{T})}\) is significant and CIs of groups overlap. :-D


Yes true. The variability of group 1 is quite high - if we had similar variability than in group 2, then the 90% CIs wouldnt overlap :-D But then again, it makes sense and we all know that with larger sample size and lower variability we get narrower CIs and lesser chance of them overlapping so yes as can be seen it depends on case-by-case basis. :-)
Helmut
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2024-11-21 14:20
(140 d 09:36 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24286
Views: 2,430
 

 Groups: (Hardly‽) overlapping CIs

Hi BEQool,

an example. Study powered to 90%, n=65, n1=31, n2=34, groups separated by 1 (one!) day. Eva­lu­a­tion per protocol with group model II. Cmax and AUC passed with ease. A deficiency letter one week before M13A was published:

Due to the significant Group × Formulation effect (p<0.05) for ln-transformed Cmax observed in model I, a separate exploratory analysis of each group was performed and produced the following outcomes:

Group 1: The 90% CI for Cmax (108.5–126.38%) fell outside the bioequivalence limits, while the CI for AUC (99.31–117.47%) remained within the limits.
Group 2: Both the 90% CIs for Cmax (90.01–109.2%) and AUC (85.43–106.39%) fell within the bioequivalence limits.

The finding from model I suggests heterogeneity of treatment effect across groups, with 90% CIs for Cmax hardly overlapped as demonstrated with model III submitted by the applicant. Therefore, the applicant should provide a justification for this difference and discuss its potential impact on the conclusion of bioequivalence.


A new term: Hardly overlapping CIs. Again: So what? Justification?

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BEQool
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2024-11-22 13:32
(139 d 10:24 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 24291
Views: 2,283
 

 Groups: (Hardly‽) overlapping CIs

Hello Helmut,

thank you for the example provided. Unfortunately, these kind of deficiency questions will probably become inevitable when conducting a study in groups.

❝ […] a separate exploratory analysis of each group was performed and produced the following outcomes

Did you perform this exploratory analysis of each group or did the agency do it?

❝ Therefore, the applicant should provide a justification for this difference and discuss its potential impact on the conclusion of bioequivalence.

❝ A new term: Hardly overlapping CIs. Again: So what? Justification?

How do you plan to "justify" this difference?

Regards
BEQool
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2024-11-22 13:58
(139 d 09:59 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24292
Views: 2,289
 

 Groups: (Hardly‽) overlapping CIs

Hi BEQool,

❝ […] Unfortunately, these kind of deficiency questions will probably become inevitable when conducting a study in groups.

Quite likely, esp. since agencies think that \(\small{p(G\times T)<0.05}\) is a signal of data manipulation.

❝ ❝ […] a separate exploratory analysis of each group was performed and produced the following outcomes

❝ Did you perform this exploratory analysis of each group or did the agency do it?

The applicant did.

❝ ❝ Therefore, the applicant should provide a justification for this difference and discuss its potential impact on the conclusion of bioequivalence.

↑ This was a request of the agency.

❝ ❝ A new term: Hardly overlapping CIs. Again: So what? Justification?

❝ How do you plan to "justify" this difference?

Well, the deadline for the response is today. I made only sarcastic comments like …

As long as confidence limits overlap, treatment effects estimated in the groups do not differ significantly. To question that is like saying “since the upper confidence limit is 124%, products are hardly bioequivalent”

… and suggested the applicant to translate it into a more diplomatic language.

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Vienna, Austria,
2024-11-23 14:05
(138 d 09:52 ago)

@ BEQool
Posting: # 24295
Views: 2,180
 

 Multiplicity?

Hi BEQool,

I forgot something. The GL states

… applicants should evaluate potential for heterogeneity of treatment effect across groups

In my understanding »across groups« means all pairwise comparisons. Then their number increases quickly with the number of groups and PK metrics. Let \(\small{n}\) be the number of groups and \(\small{m}\) the number of PK-metrics. Then the number of pairwise comparisons is given by \(\small{k=}\frac{n!}{2\,(n-2)!}\) per metric. The familywise error rate (here the chance to observe at least one false positive in any of the tests) is given by \(\small{(1-(1-\alpha)^k})\times m\). With \(\small{\alpha=0.05}\) in my example above we get 10%. In order to counteract that we should test with \(\small{\alpha_\text{adj}=\alpha / (k\times m)}\).
If that is done, the G×T interaction of Cmax would not be significant any more.

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2024-11-26 09:15
(135 d 14:41 ago)

(edited on 2024-11-26 13:40)
@ Helmut
Posting: # 24297
Views: 2,127
 

 Groups

Hello Helmut,

❝ Quite likely, esp. since agencies think that \(\small{p(G\times T)<0.05}\) is a signal of data manipulation.

In cases where we have "good" PEs for PK parameters (let's say PEs around 100%) in the first group and "bad" PEs for PK parameters (let's now say around 85% or 115%) in the second group, there should be no reason to question the data integrity right?

❝ ❝ ❝ A new term: Hardly overlapping CIs. Again: So what? Justification?

❝ ❝ How do you plan to "justify" this difference?

❝ Well, the deadline for the response is today. I made only sarcastic comments like …As long as confidence limits overlap, treatment effects estimated in the groups do not differ significantly. To question that is like saying “since the upper confidence limit is 124%, products are hardly bioequivalent”… and suggested the applicant to translate it into a more diplomatic language.

:-D:-D

❝ I forgot something. The GL states… applicants should evaluate potential for heterogeneity of treatment effect across groups …In my understanding »across groups« means all pairwise comparisons. Then their number increases quickly with the number of groups and PK metrics. Let \(\small{n}\) be the number of groups and \(\small{m}\) the number of PK-metrics. Then the number of pairwise comparisons is given by \(\small{k=}\frac{n!}{2\,(n-2)!}\) per metric. The familywise error rate (here the chance to observe at least one false positive in any of the tests) is given by \(\small{(1-(1-\alpha)^k})\times m\). With \(\small{\alpha=0.05}\) in my example above we get 10%. In order to counteract that we should test with \(\small{\alpha_\text{adj}=\alpha / (k\times m)}\).

❝ If that is done, the G×T interaction of Cmax would not be significant any more.

Well to me that sounds like a good answer to a deficiency letter as well :-)

PS How do you get FWER=10%? Based on your example above m=2 (AUC and Cmax), n=2 (2 groups) and therefore k=2. With alpha=0.05 shouldnt FWER be 19.5%?
Or did you use m=1 as both AUC and Cmax should be okay (union-intersection principle) and got FWER=9.75%=10%?

BEQool
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