nobody
nothing

2019-04-15 09:38
(963 d 08:24 ago)

Posting: # 20161
Views: 1,331
 

 1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slope was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work...

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody
Activity
 Admin contact
21,785 posts in 4,556 threads, 1,547 registered users;
online 7 (0 registered, 7 guests [including 5 identified bots]).
Forum time: Friday 17:03 CET (Europe/Vienna)

A drug is that substance which, when injected into a rat,
will produce a scientific report.    Anonymous

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5