haydonat
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Turkey,
2012-10-18 02:26
(4603 d 02:16 ago)

Posting: # 9431
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 determining the QC medium [Bioanalytics]

Dear Members,

We determine the medium QC in our method validations by using the geometric mean of LLOQ and ULOQ to be in the range of concentration levels in study samples.

But in EMEA bioanalytical method validation guideline, medium QC is described to be around 50% of the calibration curve range.

Does using the geometric mean instead of the 50% of calibration curve range for calculating medium QC pose a problem during an EMEA audit?

Regards,

Haydonat
Helmut
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2012-10-18 18:14
(4602 d 10:28 ago)

@ haydonat
Posting: # 9434
Views: 16,141
 

 QC medium: short answer

Merhaba Haydonat!

❝ We determine the medium QC […] by using the geometric mean of LLOQ and ULOQ to be in the range of concentration levels in study samples. But in EMEA bioanalytical method validation guideline, medium QC is described to be around 50% of the calibration curve range.


Good point!

❝ Does using the geometric mean instead of the 50% of calibration curve range for calculating medium QC pose a problem during an EMEA audit?


Don’t know. Personally I haven’t seen a deficiency letter covering this topic yet – but the new GL is in force for a short time now… I’m interested in opinions/experiences of other forum members.

Actually the geometric mean was suggested in the Arlington III conference report – but only for Ligand Binding Assays. Strange IMHO because a 4-parameter logistic function is symmetric. The geometric mean makes more sense for conventional assays, where the calibration range covers several orders of magnitude and calibrators are logarithmically spaced.

I will prepare are more detailed answer later on.

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ElMaestro
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Denmark,
2012-10-18 18:51
(4602 d 09:51 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 9435
Views: 16,135
 

 QC medium: short answer

Hi haydonat and Helmut and others,

ok, the guideline suggests that medium QC is midway between LLOQ and ULOQ, but to be honest I don't think it is fully unreasonable to use a mean ("Medium") for QC that is closer to LLOQ than ULOQ. This is because it is not uncommon to see more observed values closer to the LLOQ than to the ULOQ. I am basing this on typical PK-profiles (often rapid increase towards Cmax, then rapid decrease) and intuition.
Add to this that a safety factor if often included for the ULOQ (expected Cmax plus a nice generous bit) to minimise the need for dilutions.

Thus I would expect a medium closer to LLOQ than ULOQ to be reflective of more samples than if it was just the average, and I would on that basis argue that such a QC value would be more relevant.

If the medium then should be calculated as the geometric mean or via some other sneaky method to make sure the QC level is representative of typical or expected samples, that of course remains to be discussed. Likewise, if someone has scientific arguments why a medium QCs should not reflect typical or expected values then I'd be happy to learn.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Helmut
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2012-10-19 17:47
(4601 d 10:55 ago)

@ haydonat
Posting: # 9437
Views: 16,595
 

 QC medium: lengthy answer

Merhaba Haydonat,

I agree with what ElMaestro has posted in the meantime. Some more stuff in the following:

The GL states in Section 4.1.4.:

Ideally, before carrying out the validation of the analytical method it should be known what concentration range is expected. This range should be covered by the calibration curve range, defined by the LLOQ being the lowest calibration standard and the upper limit of quanti­fi­ca­tion (ULOQ), being the highest calibration standard. The range should be established to allow adequate description of the pharmacokinetics of the analyte of interest.


Let’s concentrate on the last sentence which IMHO is the most important. The main principle of validation is to “demonstrate that the method is suitable for the intended use”. Even for the same calibration range the PK may be different. Example: Two studies of the antiepileptic valproic acid; (1) after a high single dose and (2) after lower doses in steady state. Cmax is expected to be similar.
  1. Estimation of elimination is important. Therefore, we may want to set the calibrators in such a way that the mean is on the lower end. This is what most analysts do in order to reduce the variability at the LLOQ anyway. We would set the medium QC maybe in the lower third of the range.
  2. We have a high accumulation and a small %PTF. It is not uncommon that the Cmax/Cmin-ratio is only ~1.5. We have also low between subject variability (example). Of course we have to show that we have no pre-dose concentrations in period 1 and have to follow the time-course of trough-values in the saturation phases, but if we want to describe the PK as accurate as possible (GL!) it is a good idea to adapt the interval of calibrators (e.g., somewhere between evenly spaced and a geometric progression) and move the medium QC up.
I don’t know how many people writing the GL had a bioanalytical background, but “around 50% of the calibration range (medium QC)” as one-size-fits-all contradicts the leading principle of validation.

Let’s start with an excursion into validation in other fields of analytical chemistry. There are methods (mainly in environmental analysis, but also food and clinical chemistry) where you have to be accredited to perform them. In these cases we have a set of standards to follow (ISO, NIST in the US, or DIN in Germany). Many follow this approach:
  • Define the calibration range.
  • Start with a set of calibrators evenly spaced (!) throughout the range.
  • Perform the calibration and assess linearity: Run two models – linear and quadratic. Run a statistical test (e.g., Mandel 1930) to decide which one fits the data better. For an example see this post.
  • Regression requires additivity of effects and constant variance (aka homoscedasticity). Check the model residuals for a “funnel shape” (i.e., residuals increase with the concentration). Such a behavior is common in bioanalytics, especially if a wide range is covered – the variance increases, but the CV is roughly constant. Some standards require a test for homogeneity of variances based on ten replicates at LLOQ and ULOQ. If the test fails (or visual inspection suggests heteroscedasticity) the unweighted regression is not applicable. Go to the next step (weighting).
  • Theoretically the best weighting scheme would be 1/σ² of calibrators. Weighting is an art in itself. I have seen methods, where a weighting function (depend on the concentration) was established by running ten (!) replicates over the entire range. The actual calibration was done with singlets with the weighting function from the validation. The most commonly applied ones are 1/σ² (requires at least duplicates at all levels; problematic if one of the calibrators is outside the acceptance criteria), 1/x, 1x², 1/y, and 1/y². The chosen weighting schema should be justified based on back-calculated concentrations. See also the excellent paper by Almeida et al. (2002)*
Now for the more exotic stuff – where to place the calibrators within the range? Note: This is based on regression theory (e.g., Draper & Smith, Fox).
  • Linear function: 50% of calibrators at the LLOQ and 50% at the ULOQ. Why? We know from the validation already that the function is linear. We get the most accurate and precise estimates of slope and intercept if we have as many data points at the extremes. Data points in between are not informative.
  • Quadratic function: Evenly spaced throughout the range (since we have to additionally estimate the curvature).
Have you seen any of the above? I didn’t. Here enters tradition. Analysts (OK, the better ones of them) know that error in bioanalysis is multiplicative. We have serial dilutions of stock solutions and a wide calibration range. Before weighting became common practice analysts handled the problem with inaccuracy in the lower range (a single inaccurate measurement at the ULOQ may substantially alter the slope) by spreading calibrators in a geometric progression. Doing so, x|y (the “hub” of the function) is shifted downwards and inaccurate measurements in the upper range influence lower values to a lesser degree.

I’ll keep it simple: Ten calibrators, evenly spaced between 2 and 200, in a geometric progression (2.00, 3.34, 5.57, 9.28, 15.5, 25.8, 43.1, 71.9, 120, 200), or only five replicates at LLOQ and ULOQ each; linear decreasing error (from 10% CV at LLOQ to 7.5% at ULOQ = variance increasing from 0.04 to 225), lognormal, theoretical function y=0.05x. Typical example:

[image]

The dashed cross shows the “hub” (the narrowest CI). For unweighted regression this is at x|y. We see that geometric spacing pulls the range of the narrow CI towards lower values. The same is true for weighting. But which one is the “best”? I performed simulations (105 per scenario) and examined the area of the confidence band (smaller ~ better):

[image]

method, weighting        min     Q1   median  mean    Q3   max
═══════════════════════════════════════════════════════════════
evenly spaced, w=1      2.398  13.34  16.81  17.30  20.69 51.73
50% LLOQ/ULOQ, w=1      0.8493 12.14  16.05  16.51  20.38 48.92
geometr. progr., w=1    0.6494  6.59   9.296 10.11  12.77 42.69
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────────────
evenly spaced, w=1/y    2.070   9.998 12.15  12.36  14.51 29.21
geometr. progr., w=1/y  1.329   8.649 11.07  11.52  13.91 34.72
50% LLOQ/ULOQ, w=1/y    0.7742  7.642 10.04  10.32  12.70 30.00


The variance is extremely increasing and only weighted models are justified. In my simulations 50% LLOQ/ULOQ performed “best” (smallest CI-area) – which I expected according to theory. It was a close shave with the geometric progression – the one most people use… But this is just a crude set showing the impact of locations of calibrators and weighting.

Where to set the medium QC? IMHO it depends on the purpose of the method (GL: “[…] adequate description of the pharmacokinetics”). I would suggest to set the medium QC at the median of concentrations expected in the study – see the valproic acid example at the very beginning and what ElMaestro said. I would reckon “around 50% of the calibration curve range” to be a rare exception. CROs will hate me for such a suggestion because it might require partial revalidation. ;-)


  • Almeida AM, Castel-Branco MM, Falcão AC. Linear regression for calibration lines revisited: weighting schemes for bioanalytical methods. J Chrom B. 2002;774:215–22.

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Debbie
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India,
2014-06-10 21:42
(4002 d 07:00 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13052
Views: 14,604
 

 QC medium concentration in 2014

Hi,

After around 2 years of effectiveness of EMA Bioanalytical Method validation guidance, what would be the present scenario for the QC medium concentration?

Whether the Arithmetic mean or Geometric mean of calibration curve range should be used for medium QC concentration?

Is the Geometric mean of calibration curve range acceptable to FDA?

Please share the experience with the regulators.

Regards,

Debbie.
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2014-06-17 16:30
(3995 d 12:12 ago)

@ Debbie
Posting: # 13074
Views: 14,487
 

 ~geometric mean of range

Hi Debbie,

EMA’s GL states “around 50% of the calibration curve range” and FDA’s current draft “in the midrange”
Most colleagues I’ve talked to in recent years spike the middle QC close to \(\sqrt{LLOQ \times ULOQ}\).* That’s justified because calibrators generally follow a geometric progression. Never heard of any problems with assessors/inspectors.


  • Some people shift the MQC from \(\bar{x}_{geom}\) towards the closest calibrator in order to allow a direct comparison if deemed necessary. Fine with me.

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nobody
nothing

2014-06-17 16:49
(3995 d 11:53 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13075
Views: 14,422
 

 ~geometric mean of range

I would consider this as a total non-issues. Only thing to consider: The closer to LLOq, the higher the variabliity, the higher the chance to be outside acceptance range ;-)

Kindest regards, nobody
Helmut
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Vienna, Austria,
2014-06-17 17:11
(3995 d 11:31 ago)

@ nobody
Posting: # 13076
Views: 14,481
 

 ~geometric mean of range

Hi Nobody,

❝ I would consider this as a total non-issues.


Really? Imagine following calibrators: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, and 128.
  • Low QC: LLOQ < LQC ≤ 3×LLOQ: >2–6
  • High QC: >75% of ULOQ: >96
  • Middle QC: xar 65, xgeo 16
That’s a huge difference. If we set the MQC to xar we have just one calibrator higher than this value and six below.

❝ Only thing to consider: The closer to LLOq, the higher the variabliity, the higher the chance to be outside acceptance range ;-)


Maybe. Maybe not. Due to the geometric progression of calibrators and the commonly applied weighting schemes, the precision is nice, but there might be problems with accuracy…

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nobody
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2014-06-17 20:26
(3995 d 08:16 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13077
Views: 14,449
 

 ~geometric mean of range

That’s a huge difference.


But not all differences (even if significant) matter :-D

The middle is, as the name says, somewhere in the middle. Anything else is for maltreating people...

And the weighing is applied for heteroscedasticy, coming close to LLOQ CV increases, never seen anything else in real live :-p and weighing increases accuracy of samples calculated from the calibration function, especially in the lower range. So, where am I wrong? :-)

Kindest regards, nobody
Helmut
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2014-06-18 18:07
(3994 d 10:35 ago)

@ nobody
Posting: # 13084
Views: 14,458
 

 ~geometric mean of range

Hi Nobody,

❝ And the weighing is applied for heteroscedasticy, […] weighing increases accuracy of samples calculated from the calibration function, especially in the lower range.


Correct. Now think about the confidence bands of the regression: They are two hyperbolas. The confidence band is narrowest at x|y. Both with geometric spacing of calibrators and weighting we shift the means towards the lower end. Therefore, the accuracy close to the LLOQ increases (narrower CI). But there is no free lunch. Accuracy at the upper end decreases.

❝ So, where am I wrong? :-)


In my example it might matter whether we look at x=16 or x=65. ;-)

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ElMaestro
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Denmark,
2014-06-18 19:43
(3994 d 08:59 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13085
Views: 14,371
 

 compromise

Hi Helmut, Nobody,

let me offer a compromise that will satisfy you both as well as regulators:

If you are using evenly spaced calibrators (at least at the upper end) then you have a reason for doing so.
If you are using 'logarithmic' calibrators (Hötzi's expression) then you have a reason for doing so.

It is that reason -whatever it might be it isn't part of this discussion from my side- that determines whether or not you are aiming at using the geometric mean or the mean or the median or Harmonica Lewinsky's mean or something entirely else for the mid-level QC.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Ohlbe
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France,
2014-06-18 22:00
(3994 d 06:42 ago)

@ ElMaestro
Posting: # 13087
Views: 14,337
 

 compromise

Dear ElMaestro,

❝ If you are using evenly spaced calibrators (at least at the upper end) then you have a reason for doing so.

❝ If you are using 'logarithmic' calibrators (Hötzi's expression) then you have a reason for doing so.


Well, cough... The reason is usually something like "this is what we have in our SOP", or "we always did it like that", or "that's how we did it in my previous company", and the same rule is used for all analytes and methods whatever is seen during method development and validation...

There are pros and cons in both methods, I'd say. The 50 % in the EMA guideline is probably too high, but with a log placement the MQC gets rather low, and leaves a huge gap between MQC and HQC. With a log placement of calibrators, there is also a huge gap between the HLOQ sample and the one before. It may not be a problem with a linear response, but with a quadratic equation this gap between calibration samples does not help to fit the curve (where does it become non-linear ?) and the QCs may not help to see inaccuracies.

Personally I would set the MQC around 1/3 of the ULOQ, but I have strictly no data or rationale to defend it.

In any case there may be a need to adjust the concentration of the QC samples based on the concentrations found in the subject samples after the first few runs, if the calibration range is not optimal.

Regards
Ohlbe
Helmut
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2014-06-19 03:13
(3994 d 01:29 ago)

@ Ohlbe
Posting: # 13089
Views: 14,353
 

 compromise

Dear Ohlbe,

❝ The reason is usually something like […]



I’m afraid you are very right!

❝ The 50 % in the EMA guideline is probably too high, but with a log placement the MQC gets rather low, and leaves a huge gap between MQC and HQC. With a log placement of calibrators, there is also a huge gap between the HLOQ sample and the one before.


The gap disappears if you start thinking in log-scale (which makes sense, IMHO). Let’s explore the example from above (x = 2–200, n = 10). I would place the LQC at St2 (5.57 = 2.78 × LLOQ) and the HQC maybe between St9 & 10 (170 = 85% of ULOQ). How do two MQCs behave? MQC1 based on the arithmetic mean (101, placed between St8 & 9) and MQC2 based on the geometric mean (20, between St5 & 6). Whereas MQC2 splits the curve in halves (five calibrators below/above), MQC1 is extremely asymmetric (eight below, two above).

❝ It may not be a problem with a linear response, but with a quadratic equation this gap between calibration samples does not help to fit the curve…


There is no gap in calibrators.

❝ (where does it become non-linear ?)


Nowhere; it’s nonlinear in the entire range. Commonly the coefficient of the quadratic term is negative – with increasing concentrations the local slope decreases.

❝ and the QCs may not help to see inaccuracies.


Have to think about it.

❝ Personally I would set the MQC around 1/3 of the ULOQ,…


In my example that would still be a 7/3-split of the curve.

❝ …but I have strictly no data or rationale to defend it.


:-D

❝ In any case there may be a need to adjust the concentration of the QC samples based on the concentrations found in the subject samples after the first few runs, if the calibration range is not optimal.


Good point!

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Ohlbe
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France,
2014-06-19 13:15
(3993 d 15:27 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13091
Views: 14,334
 

 compromise

Dear Helmut,

❝ Let’s explore the example from above (x = 2–200, n = 10).


In my experience most labs would only have 8 calibration levels, not 10. And a 200-fold difference between LLOQ and ULOQ would be quite common in BE (possibly wider in pre-clinical). But OK, the principle remains the same.

❝ I would place [...] the HQC maybe between St9 & 10 (170 = 85% of ULOQ).


85 % of the ULOQ may be a bit high. You are likely to get some values above the ULOQ. Not a problem during study sample analysis (the QC fails, that's all), but more difficult to handle during method validation, where you have to calculate precision and accuracy.

❝ There is no gap in calibrators.


Not on a log scale... But looking at it on a linear scale you have no calibrator between 120 and 200, which represents a significant portion of your range.

❝ ❝ (where does it become non-linear ?)


❝ Nowhere; it’s nonlinear in the entire range.


Sure. But looking at the calibration plots the first portion of the curve often looks quite linear and would actually perform quite well with a linear fit. It is only the highest calibration samples that justify a quadratic fit. If I take your example, what I have seen a few times is situations where looking only at the calibrators from 2 to 120 I would go for a linear fit. Then the 200 calibrator has a lower response. What is it due to: a really non-linear response ? Or just a spiking issue ? With no point in between it becomes quite difficult to answer that question.

Regards
Ohlbe
nobody
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2014-06-19 16:10
(3993 d 12:32 ago)

@ Helmut
Posting: # 13093
Views: 14,425
 

 compromise

❝ But there is no free lunch. Accuracy at the upper end decreases.


Absolute values: Yes. Relative accuracy: Does hardly matter. And does not change with the position of the medium QC :-p

Anyways, I have to pack my stuff, holiday is waiting, mountains of equipment for just one little car...

Have a nice time!

Kindest regards, nobody
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