Common variance! [Design Issues]

posted by jag009  – NJ, 2012-06-12 21:56 (4757 d 15:50 ago) – Posting: # 8719
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Hi Helmut,

❝ Thinking it over I would expect that the FDA will not like this approach. What if it’s the other way ’round? Three tests; T1 and T2 perform bad in terms of their PEs whilst T3 is fine. Now let’s assume that s²WT1=s²WT2=s²WR WT3. The pooled s²W will be ‘dampened’ by the (later dropped) formulations T1 and T2. In other words you would never be able to demonstrate BE of T1 in a 2-way XOver of the same size. Though theses variances are not accessible in a nonreplicate design I think that the FDA wouldn’t like the idea of approving a product with a potential ‘variance-brake’ in the pivotal study.


Totally agree. Could I hypothetically strip the two treatments (successful test formulation and the reference) and re-run stats in a two-way crossover fashion to re-evaulate the data? Would that stand a chance with regulatory? Just a thought...

Thanks

John

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