ƒ of IV = 1 by definition, but… [Off Topic]

posted by Darborn – Taiwan, 2024-08-01 14:36 (195 d 10:46 ago) – Posting: # 24120
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Actually it's not about a bioequivalence study or comparative BA study. It's about two intravenous formulations that one of them has longer half-life hence larger exposure. So I'm just bothered by which one of bioavailability fits this situation by definition, absolute or relative.

BTW, the guideline I refer to is FDA's "Bioavailability Studies Submitted in NDAs or INDs — General Considerations", page 3. :-)


Edit: Please follow the Forum’s Policy. Guidance linked. [Helmut]

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