ƒ of IV = 1 by definition, but… [Off Topic]

posted by Darborn – Taiwan, 2024-08-01 14:36 (295 d 02:47 ago) – Posting: # 24120
Views: 2,716

Actually it's not about a bioequivalence study or comparative BA study. It's about two intravenous formulations that one of them has longer half-life hence larger exposure. So I'm just bothered by which one of bioavailability fits this situation by definition, absolute or relative.

BTW, the guideline I refer to is FDA's "Bioavailability Studies Submitted in NDAs or INDs — General Considerations", page 3. :-)


Edit: Please follow the Forum’s Policy. Guidance linked. [Helmut]

Complete thread:

UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
23,424 posts in 4,927 threads, 1,681 registered users;
53 visitors (0 registered, 53 guests [including 35 identified bots]).
Forum time: 17:24 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

Pharmacokinetics may be simply defined as
what the body does to the drug,
as opposed to pharmacodynamics, which may be defined as
what the drug does to the body.    Leslie Z. Benet

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5