## Changing the regulations: Hope dies last. [NCA / SHAM]

» Hhm, can you elaborate?

these are my thoughts, I did not support them with any deep search ...
$$C = C_0 * e^{-k_e * t}$$ => $$C = \frac{D}{V_d} * e^{-k_e * t}$$
Model:
$$C = \frac{aX + \epsilon_2}{V_d} * e^{-bZ * t} * \epsilon_1$$
$$\epsilon_1 \sim N(0, \sigma_1^2); \epsilon_2 \sim N(0, \sigma_2^2)$$
It can be solved for $$a, V_d, b, \sigma_1^2, \sigma_2^2$$ and modified for extravascular model.

Something described here: Korkmaz, Selcuk & Orman, Mehmet. (2012). The Use of Nonlinear Mixed Effects Models in Bioequivalence Studies: A Real Data Application. Open Access Scientific Reports. 1-11

However, I think terminal-phase adjusted area under the concentration curve method is something between the classic and NLME approaches. And both of them make corrections for variation from elimination.