## Leads to a (pseudo-) period effect ? [Bioanalytics]

Dear Helmut,

» However, if Ravuri would have different responses in his approach, they would show up in the ANOVA as a period effect – which is automatically corrected for and thus not relevant in assessing the treatment effect.

Would they really ? I would say yes if he had systematically a negative bias for period 1 and a positive bias for period 2, or vice-versa. As there will not be a single run for Period 1 samples and a single run for period 2 samples, that will not necessarily be the case: some subjects will get artificially a positive bias in P1, others in P2.

Regards
Ohlbe