1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

posted by nobody – 2019-04-15 09:38  – Posting: # 20161
Views: 320

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slope was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work...

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody

Complete thread:

Activity
 Mix view
Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum |  Admin contact
19,537 posts in 4,144 threads, 1,338 registered users;
online 5 (0 registered, 5 guests [including 3 identified bots]).
Forum time (Europe/Vienna): 18:22 CEST

When puzzled, it never hurts to read the primary documents –
a rather simple and self-evident principle that has, nonetheless,
completely disappeared from large sectors
of the American experience.    Stephen Jay Gould

The BIOEQUIVALENCE / BIOAVAILABILITY FORUM is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5