1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

posted by nobody – 2019-04-15 09:38  – Posting: # 20161
Views: 87

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slop was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work....

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody

Complete thread:

Activity
 Mix view
Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum |  Admin contact
19,400 posts in 4,121 threads, 1,323 registered users;
online 7 (0 registered, 7 guests [including 5 identified bots]).
Forum time (Europe/Vienna): 21:18 CEST

Science is the great antidote to the poison
of enthusiasm and superstition.    Adam Smith

The BIOEQUIVALENCE / BIOAVAILABILITY FORUM is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5