Why BE testing use 90 CI [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by Ohlbe – France, 2019-03-04 00:07 (2313 d 12:31 ago) – Posting: # 19992
Views: 5,649

Dear Akash,

❝ This is where the 90% CI comes into the equation. There is a (not more than) 5% risk associated with it (1-2*alpha).


My understanding of the reason why: the true T/R ratio cannot be at the same time lower than 0.8 and higher than 1.25. So even if you test the lower limit with a 5 % risk, and the higher limit with a 5 % risk, the overall risk still remains 5 % for the patients, not 10 %.

Regards
Ohlbe

Complete thread:

UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
23,425 posts in 4,928 threads, 1,683 registered users;
39 visitors (0 registered, 39 guests [including 12 identified bots]).
Forum time: 13:39 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

You can do one of two things; just shut up,
which is something I don’t find easy,
or learn an awful lot very fast,
which is what I tried to do.    Jane Fonda

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5