100% included in 90% CI? [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by libaiyi – China, 2018-07-13 08:48 (1202 d 03:06 ago) – Posting: # 19042
Views: 2,771

Hi,Helmut

» I don’t see a contradiction. If the 90% CI contains 100%, the p value will always be >0.05. Only if not, it may be <0.05 (see this lengthy thread).

Sorry I wrote it wrong, it supposed to be that the effect is smaller than 0.05, but I understand now about the meaning of p value.

» You can’t prove anything with statistics. Do you mean that the p values are not significant?

Yes I did mean that the p values are not significant.
Thanks a lot!:party:

Complete thread:

Activity
 Admin contact
21,758 posts in 4,550 threads, 1,545 registered users;
online 6 (0 registered, 6 guests [including 1 identified bots]).
Forum time: Wednesday 11:54 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

There ain’t no rules around here!
We’re trying to accomplish something!    Thomas Alva Edison

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5