Huge gap in my understanding [General Statistics]
Hi all,
Here's where I am so far:
Hilfe, what is going on here? I hope someone will explain and discuss and go a little beyond applying some contrasts.
Many thanks.
Here's where I am so far:
- When we deal with the standard BE model the LSMEan difference of T and R equals the treatment effect difference, regardless of contrast coding. We thus do not need to worry about LSMeans to construct the 90 or whatever % CI around the geo LSMean ratio. We just extract the treatment effect difference from the effect vectors (=the model coefficient).
- If we introduce a covariate, however, the LSMean difference may not be the same as the treatment effect difference. This implies that the LSMean difference is not necessrily the maximum likelihood difference. This to me is a big, big worry. I consider this a huge gap in my understanding. Why would that be so, and what would be factual advantage (whether practical or theoretical) about a CI built around something which is not the maximum likelihood treatment difference? I did not extensively play around with contrast coding. Yet.
Hilfe, what is going on here? I hope someone will explain and discuss and go a little beyond applying some contrasts.
Many thanks.
—
Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Complete thread:
- LSMeans ElMaestro 2018-02-27 09:02 [General Statistics]
- Understanding (!) LSMeans d_labes 2018-02-28 09:49
- Huge gap in my understandingElMaestro 2018-03-04 10:03
- Huge gap in my understanding martin 2018-03-06 14:40
- Huge gap in my understanding ElMaestro 2018-03-06 17:30
- Huge gap in my understanding martin 2018-03-06 19:58
- Huge gap in my understanding ElMaestro 2018-03-06 20:53
- Huge gap in my understanding martin 2018-03-07 08:42
- Huge gap in my understanding ElMaestro 2018-03-06 20:53
- Huge gap in my understanding martin 2018-03-06 19:58
- Huge gap in my understanding ElMaestro 2018-03-06 17:30
- Huge gap in my understanding martin 2018-03-06 14:40