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posted by Helmut Homepage – Vienna, Austria, 2013-07-05 01:08 (4370 d 05:48 ago) – Posting: # 10942
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Hi ElMaestro,

❝ In perspective, could this methodology then be extended to a 3-treatment parallel study (e.g. US Ref, EU Ref, Test)?


Intuitively – if we walk on EMA’s stony ground of ‘leave one out’ – I would say so.* Duno what will happen if we keep all treatments in the model.

❝ I am thinking we'd just need another sigma squared on the diagonal and then be good to go?


I feel tempted to give you all statisticians’ standard answer on any arbitrary question: “Positively maybe!”

❝ If that's the case then the WNL approach –however counterintuitive and retarded it might seem– could provide a solution to a problem which cannot be resolved by the standard t-test approach?


See above. Any ideas how to code that in R without setting the Silly-o-Meter on fire?

❝ Oh and by the way, I think this would imply that the denominator DFs would have to be calculated from treatment A, B as well as C, when a 90% CI for A/B is constructed - that's perhaps also worthy of a heated debate further down the road...?


Sure. We are moving in a circle. Remember the sim’s Detlew performed in Dec 2011?



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