1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

posted by nobody – 2019-04-15 11:38 (2628 d 02:08 ago) – Posting: # 20161
Views: 3,626

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slope was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work...

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody

Complete thread:

UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
23,655 posts in 4,993 threads, 1,571 registered users;
151 visitors (0 registered, 151 guests [including 14 identified bots]).
Forum time: 13:46 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

The great tragedy of Science – the slaying
of a beautiful hypothesis by an ugly fact.    Thomas Henry Huxley

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5