showing equivalence based on the standard deviation? [General Statistics]
dear all!
I recently encountered the following acceptance criteria for showing equivalence to a known fixed value: “the calculated sample mean should not differ more than 1.3 standard deviations (SDs) to the known value for showing equivalence statistically”.
I do not know that background but I suppose that this might be related to analytical uncertainty. However, I think that this criterion is counterproductive, because equivalence is “shown” more likely with a high SD rather than with a small SD and that the effect size is not adequately taken into account.
I would be grateful for your opinion and/or for published references regarding this approach for showing equivalence “statistically”.
best regards
martin
I recently encountered the following acceptance criteria for showing equivalence to a known fixed value: “the calculated sample mean should not differ more than 1.3 standard deviations (SDs) to the known value for showing equivalence statistically”.
I do not know that background but I suppose that this might be related to analytical uncertainty. However, I think that this criterion is counterproductive, because equivalence is “shown” more likely with a high SD rather than with a small SD and that the effect size is not adequately taken into account.
I would be grateful for your opinion and/or for published references regarding this approach for showing equivalence “statistically”.
best regards
martin
Complete thread:
- showing equivalence based on the standard deviation?martin 2012-02-22 13:36
- Strange Helmut 2012-02-22 14:32
- 'Scaled' average equivalence d_labes 2012-02-22 17:05
- 'Scaled' average equivalence martin 2012-02-22 18:18
- 'Scaled average' equivalence d_labes 2012-02-23 08:25
- 'Scaled' average equivalence martin 2012-02-22 18:18
