Variance independent from mean [General Statistics]
❝ […] In the 2×2 the ISCV is actually derived from a common variance of the treatment ones. If treatment variances are substantially different (e.g., high for a ‘bad’ reference and low for a ‘good’ test), the residual error – and therefore the CI – will be inflated. That’s why we need high sample sizes for 2×2 Xovers of HVDPs – the test will be punished for the reference’s CV. In (fully) replicated design together with RSABE in this case you will get a reward in terms of sample size. But that’s somehow OT.
Very interesting. I am wondering if an estimated CVintra from a 2×2 study (test two different formulation) is still a good estimate when the Cmax or AUC difference between the two formulations are <30%, assumming this 30% is not substantially different?
Thanks
zan
Edit: Full quote removed. Please delete everything from the text of the original poster which is not necessary in understanding your answer; see also this post! [Helmut]
Complete thread:
- Estimate of Intrasubject CV from a study with TX effect zan 2014-01-30 00:08
- Variance independent from mean Helmut 2014-01-30 02:12
- Variance independent from meanzan 2014-01-30 18:26
- Estimate of Intrasubject CV from a study with TX effect ElMaestro 2014-01-30 08:38
- Variance independent from mean Helmut 2014-01-30 02:12
