Paired design [Power / Sample Size]
Dear Maestro/All,
gives 0.583. This is the same as
Interesting... I went back to equation (3.5) in Patterson and Jones* and calculated the variance of the estimator of the treatment difference when taking into account the correlation (imho equation (3.5) assumes sB2 = 0, i.e. rho = 0). When doing so I end up with 2/n * sT2 * (1-rho). But as we know sT2 * (1-rho) is exactly equal to sW2. So the variance of the estimator of the treatment effect remains the same, even when taking into account the correlation (
). Thus, the power is always the same, regardless of the correlation. In light of the observation above from proc power this does not make sense ... On the other hand: A higher correlation will result in higher sB2 which is compensated for via the subject effect in the model. Also, when simulating data sets with correlated outcomes and checking the power, the same result was obtained (i.e. power always the same).
Any thoughts, apparently there must be some error somewhere...??
Best, Ben
* Bioequivalence and Statistics in Clinical Pharmacology
❝ Could you possibly check what a result from Proc Power would then look like for corr=0.0 and e.g. gmr=0.95, CV=0.25, n=18 or something ? Would that coincide with the usual power calculations from the world's finest package for power calculations widely known as PowerTOST?
proc power;
pairedmeans test=equiv_ratio
lower = 0.8
upper = 1.25
meanratio = 0.95
corr = 0
cv = 0.25
npairs = 18
power = .;
run;
gives 0.583. This is the same as
power.TOST(CV=0.25, n=18, design="paired"). If we change corr = 0 to for example corr = 0.6, proc power gives 0.940.Interesting... I went back to equation (3.5) in Patterson and Jones* and calculated the variance of the estimator of the treatment difference when taking into account the correlation (imho equation (3.5) assumes sB2 = 0, i.e. rho = 0). When doing so I end up with 2/n * sT2 * (1-rho). But as we know sT2 * (1-rho) is exactly equal to sW2. So the variance of the estimator of the treatment effect remains the same, even when taking into account the correlation (
). Thus, the power is always the same, regardless of the correlation. In light of the observation above from proc power this does not make sense ... On the other hand: A higher correlation will result in higher sB2 which is compensated for via the subject effect in the model. Also, when simulating data sets with correlated outcomes and checking the power, the same result was obtained (i.e. power always the same).Any thoughts, apparently there must be some error somewhere...??
Best, Ben
* Bioequivalence and Statistics in Clinical Pharmacology
Complete thread:
- Proc power ElMaestro 2014-09-30 11:23
- Proc power d_labes 2014-10-01 09:26
- Proc power jag009 2014-10-01 20:55
- screen shot ElMaestro 2014-10-01 21:02
- Paired design d_labes 2014-10-02 13:00
- Paired design ElMaestro 2014-10-02 13:33
- Paired design Helmut 2014-10-02 13:43
- Paired design nobody 2014-10-02 14:00
- Paired design ElMaestro 2014-10-02 14:25
- A wee little hole in the coconut ElMaestro 2014-10-04 18:13
- A wee little hole in the coconut Helmut 2014-10-04 19:23
- A wee little hole in the coconut ElMaestro 2014-10-04 18:13
- Paired designBen 2014-10-05 10:43
- Paired design ElMaestro 2014-10-05 14:01
- Paired design Helmut 2014-10-02 13:43
- Paired design ElMaestro 2014-10-02 13:33
- Paired design d_labes 2014-10-02 13:00
- screen shot ElMaestro 2014-10-01 21:02
