nobody
nothing

2019-04-15 11:38
(1828 d 11:39 ago)

Posting: # 20161
Views: 1,939
 

 1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slope was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work...

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody
UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
22,984 posts in 4,822 threads, 1,652 registered users;
49 visitors (0 registered, 49 guests [including 4 identified bots]).
Forum time: 23:17 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

You can’t fix by analysis
what you bungled by design.    Richard J. Light, Judith D. Singer, John B. Willett

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5