1+1=2 ? [Off Topic]

posted by nobody – 2019-04-15 11:38 (1831 d 08:13 ago) – Posting: # 20161
Views: 1,952

Hi out there!

I stumbled upon this here

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4934130/pdf/nihms798380.pdf

and think (!) I understood the message (and I'm still shocked that something like that got published), but I'm not really sure. So if anybody could give me a hand on that.

What I (think I) understood is that the authors correlated in a linear fashion

EPOdose/kg / Hb vs. EPOdose/kg

and found that the slope was

1/Hb

This can't be the meaning of all this, or? I'm conflicted if I need a shot of hard alcohol in morning or a long walk in the forest to be able to continue my work...

Please tell me somebody that I got this completely wrong.

Kindest regards, nobody

Complete thread:

UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
22,988 posts in 4,825 threads, 1,661 registered users;
97 visitors (1 registered, 96 guests [including 7 identified bots]).
Forum time: 19:52 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

The only way to comprehend what mathematicians mean by Infinity
is to contemplate the extent of human stupidity.    Voltaire

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5