100% included in 90% CI? [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by libaiyi – China, 2018-07-13 08:48 (762 d 00:57 ago) – Posting: # 19042
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Hi,Helmut

» I don’t see a contradiction. If the 90% CI contains 100%, the p value will always be >0.05. Only if not, it may be <0.05 (see this lengthy thread).

Sorry I wrote it wrong, it supposed to be that the effect is smaller than 0.05, but I understand now about the meaning of p value.

» You can’t prove anything with statistics. Do you mean that the p values are not significant?

Yes I did mean that the p values are not significant.
Thanks a lot!:party:

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