Racemate vs. enantiomer? [Regulatives / Guidelines]

posted by Helmut Homepage – Vienna, Austria, 2018-01-18 11:55 (2279 d 21:09 ago) – Posting: # 18207
Views: 3,055

Hi Relaxation,

❝ I am not sure I agree with the interpretation here:


❝ ❝ One of the prerequisites in BE is that same molar doses of the active ingredient are administered. If the enantiomeric ratio* of the reference is 1:1, IMHO, you would have to administer twice the dose of the test and use a chiral method (assessing only the active enantiomer for BE).


❝ I would focus here on the wording "active ingredient". […] If there is only one active enantiomer, I would guess the other one is simply an inactive ingredient.


Ariëns’ isomeric ballast.* :-D

❝ So in conclusion, proposing 50 mg of the pure active enantiomer as a generic to a product containing 100 mg of the 1:1 racemate would work for me.


You are right and I stand corrected! I doubt that such a product falls in the definition of a generic. However, Christian is interested in a new FDC.

❝ Got involved in a discussion on dexibuprofen briefly, but there it is more complicated due to interconversion and still some discussion of a contribution of both enantiomers to efficacy.


IMHO, dexibuprofen products are – to a large extent – marketing gimmicks.



Dif-tor heh smusma 🖖🏼 Довге життя Україна! [image]
Helmut Schütz
[image]

The quality of responses received is directly proportional to the quality of the question asked. 🚮
Science Quotes

Complete thread:

UA Flag
Activity
 Admin contact
22,984 posts in 4,822 threads, 1,651 registered users;
50 visitors (0 registered, 50 guests [including 4 identified bots]).
Forum time: 10:04 CEST (Europe/Vienna)

You can’t fix by analysis
what you bungled by design.    Richard J. Light, Judith D. Singer, John B. Willett

The Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum is hosted by
BEBAC Ing. Helmut Schütz
HTML5