Interesting! [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by DavidManteigas – Portugal, 2017-03-29 13:16 (2582 d 07:31 ago) – Posting: # 17200
Views: 8,677

Hi d_labes and ElMaestro,

I'm also struggling with the question now. A 90% CI compares with a hypothesis test at 10%. The 90% CI is equivalent to a statistical assessment of equivalente at the 5% level due the TOST approach, since you're not assessing significance for the null hypothesis of difference in means. Nevertheless, when you apply the model the 90% CI interval is an interval for difference in means regardless of the interpretation of the results in the bioequivalence context. As the statistical conclusion of "difference in means" is obtained at the 10% level and not 5% level, and the term for formulation is assessing whether there is a "difference in means" and not equivalence, the p value for formulation will be significant at the 10% significance level if the 90% confidence interval does not contains 1. So it is completly plausible for me to have a 90% CI without 1 and a non-significant p value for formulation at the 5% significance level.

Am I understanding the issue wrongly?

Regards,
David

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