Bioequivalence and Bioavailability Forum

ke versus t1/2 [🇷 for BE/BA]

posted by Helmut  – Vienna, Austria, 2016-07-20 18:31 (2836 d 03:09 ago) – Posting: # 16502
Views: 9,624

Dear Detlew,

❝ ❝ BTW, asking for a comparison of both k and t_½ demonstrates a lack of understanding of statistics. They differ only by a factor of ln(2). Any comparison will give identical variance, CI, etc.

❝

❝ I think here you err.

I stand partly corrected. Just checked one of my studies (never compared this stuff before).
λ_z:   99.66% (90% CI: 92.23% – 107.69%)
t_½: 100.34% (90% CI: 92.86% – 108.42%)

Within- and between-subject variances are identical. Hence, any conclusions (pass/fail) will be the same.

Note the PEs close to 100% (“proving” the assumption?) and 1/1.0034 ≈ 0.9966 (and so are the CIs: 1/CL_lower of one metric = CL_upper of the other). Hence, testing both is nuts.

—
Dif-tor heh smusma 🖖🏼 Довге життя Україна! 
Helmut Schütz


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