Intrasubject variablity, 222BE vs 224BE [General Statistics]
Hi all,
I am trying to figure out if we can say anything general about the sigma (let's call it s) we get from a 222BE study versus the individual treatment within-sigmas we get from a 224-study (sT and sR).
My guess is that the expected value of s will fall in between sT and sR regardless of the magnitude of the fixed treatment effects, but I have no real idea if that holds true. Another way of saying it is that in a simulation experiment s will be in between sT and sR for infinitely big sample sizes.
I am probably wrong, though? I am saying this not because I have a mathematical proof but rather because I generally tend to screw up badly when I try to use my sad excuse for a brain.
Any insight here? Many thanks in advance.
I am trying to figure out if we can say anything general about the sigma (let's call it s) we get from a 222BE study versus the individual treatment within-sigmas we get from a 224-study (sT and sR).
My guess is that the expected value of s will fall in between sT and sR regardless of the magnitude of the fixed treatment effects, but I have no real idea if that holds true. Another way of saying it is that in a simulation experiment s will be in between sT and sR for infinitely big sample sizes.
I am probably wrong, though? I am saying this not because I have a mathematical proof but rather because I generally tend to screw up badly when I try to use my sad excuse for a brain.
Any insight here? Many thanks in advance.
—
Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Pass or fail!
ElMaestro
Complete thread:
- Intrasubject variablity, 222BE vs 224BEElMaestro 2015-01-23 10:48 [General Statistics]
- Intrasubject variablity, 222BE vs 224BE Helmut 2015-01-23 12:52