Intrasubject variablity, 222BE vs 224BE [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by ElMaestro  – Denmark, 2015-01-23 11:48 (3352 d 02:57 ago) – Posting: # 14315
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Hi all,

I am trying to figure out if we can say anything general about the sigma (let's call it s) we get from a 222BE study versus the individual treatment within-sigmas we get from a 224-study (sT and sR).

My guess is that the expected value of s will fall in between sT and sR regardless of the magnitude of the fixed treatment effects, but I have no real idea if that holds true. Another way of saying it is that in a simulation experiment s will be in between sT and sR for infinitely big sample sizes.

I am probably wrong, though? I am saying this not because I have a mathematical proof but rather because I generally tend to screw up badly when I try to use my sad excuse for a brain.

Any insight here? Many thanks in advance.

Pass or fail!
ElMaestro

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