Question about Treatment Effect [General Sta­tis­tics]

posted by jag009  – NJ, 2013-08-14 01:30 (4349 d 04:31 ago) – Posting: # 11272
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Hi all,

Question. From a 3-way (T1 vs T2 vs R) study, for Cmax:
  1. A is BE to R for Cmax (Ratio ~100%; 90%CI ~94-110%; pooled CV 27%)
  2. B is not BE to R (Ratio ~121%; 90%CI ~112-131; pooled CV 27%)
  3. A significant treatment effect was observed from the PROC GLM model output.
Obviously the significant treatment effect was caused by B-R, but how do you defend it?

Thanks
John

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